FOUNDATIONS: Week 25

WHAT DOES "CHRIST (Messiah) IS THE END OF THE LAW" MEAN?

WHAT DOES "CHRIST (Messiah) IS THE END OF THE LAW" MEAN?

Key Texts:
Romans 10:3–4
Matthew 5:17–20
Hebrews 13:8

One of the most quoted verses in Christianity is:

"For Christ is the end of the law for righteousness to every one that believeth."
(Romans 10:4)

But what does Paul mean?

Many assume this means:
"The Law ended."

Yet the very Messiah being discussed said:

"Think not that I am come to destroy the law, or the prophets: I am not come to destroy, but to fulfil."
(Matthew 5:17)

Let us not pretend one changing the definition of the word "fulfill" to mean "passed away" represents any responsible dictionary. It means He kept the Law perfectly which must be the case if He knew no sin (James 3:2: sin = "transgression of the law").

He then added:

"Till heaven and earth pass, one jot or one tittle shall in no wise pass from the law."

That is a trigger point a Bible reader cannot miss as Peter related Heaven and Earth pass on the Day of Judgment and not until.

So if Yahusha did not abolish the Law, what is Paul saying?

The context begins in the previous verse:

"For they being ignorant of God's righteousness, and going about to establish their own righteousness, have not submitted themselves unto the righteousness of God."
(Romans 10:3)

Paul's discussion is about righteousness. He dismisses the view of ignorance before even making the statement as to redefine "righteousness" which many church doctrines are complicit in abandoning scripture in new strange doctrine.

Messiah is the goal, culmination, and perfect expression of righteousness.

The Greek word translated "end" is τέλος, télos, which can mean goal, purpose, aim, fulfillment, completion, or final objective.

A marathon runner reaches the finish line.
The finish line does not abolish running.

A student reaches graduation.
Graduation does not abolish learning.

A baseball pitcher throws a perfect game.
Such execution does not abolish baseball for him or anyone.

Likewise, Messiah perfectly fulfilled the righteousness the Law describes. That denotes the act of keeping the law He said He would not abolish.

He is not the end of righteousness bringing chaos in rebellion. Heaven forbid.

He is the perfect example of it.

In fact, Hebrews declares:

"Jesus Christ (Yahusha Messiah) the same yesterday, and to day, and for ever."
(Hebrews 13:8)

If He is our example, should those who follow Him seek to walk as He walked?

Question:

When Paul says Messiah is the "end" (télos) of the Law, does the context suggest abolition—or fulfillment of its righteous purpose?

Yah Bless.

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